300-740 Free Certification Exam Material from Test4Engine with 201 Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 39
The primary purpose of using a web application firewall (WAF) is to:
- A. Monitor the content that users post on the web application
- B. Increase website loading times
- C. Limit the number of users accessing a web application
- D. Protect web applications from vulnerabilities and attacks like SQL injection and XSS
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 40
Restoring affected systems after a security incident is known as _________.
- A. complicating
- B. quarantining
- C. reinstituting
- D. abandoning
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 41
What role does OIDC play in web and mobile applications?
- A. It defines how applications should be developed
- B. It specifies the physical security measures for devices
- C. It serves as a protocol for user authentication using an identity provider
- D. It provides a mechanism for encrypting application data
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 42
How does Cisco XDR perform threat prioritization by using its visibility across multiple platforms?
- A. By assigning priority based on the detection platform
- B. By prioritizing threats based on their frequency across platforms
- C. By using a fixed priority system for all platforms
- D. By correlating detection risk and asset value at risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Extended Detection and Response (XDR) leverages telemetry from Cisco Secure Endpoint, Secure Email, Secure Network Analytics, and other sources to correlate threat detections with contextual data, such as asset value and business impact. This allows Cisco XDR to prioritize threats not only by the risk of the detection but also by the importance of the affected asset-essentially assessing the risk to business. This dynamic and context-aware prioritization method enables security teams to address the most impactful threats first.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 6:
Threat Response, Pages 108-111.
NEW QUESTION # 43 
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must connect an on-premises network to the public cloud using Cisco Umbrella as a Cloud Access Security Broker. The indicated configuration was applied to router R1; however, connectivity to Umbrella fails with this error: %OPENDNS-3-DNS_RES_FAILURE. Which action must be taken on R1 to enable the connection?
- A. Configure the Open DNS servers with the ip name-server command.
- B. Configure a DHCP scope using the ip dhcp pool command.
- C. Add the opendns out command to the interface configuration.
- D. Add the opendns in command to the interface configuration.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The error %OPENDNS-3-DNS_RES_FAILURE indicates a failure to resolve DNS queries via Cisco Umbrella. The most common cause of this error is the router lacking DNS resolution capability. To resolve this, the router must be explicitly configured to use Cisco Umbrella's OpenDNS servers by adding the following to global configuration:
According to the SCAZT guide (Section 1: Cloud Security Architecture, Pages 17-19), Umbrella enforces cloud-based DNS-layer protection, and upstream devices must be properly configured with working DNS name servers to perform redirection and inspection.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 1, Pages 17-19
NEW QUESTION # 44 
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure Cisco ASA so that the Secure Client deployment is removed when the user laptop disconnects from the VPN. The indicated configuration was applied to the Cisco ASA firewall. Which command must be run to meet the requirement?
- A. client-bypass-protocol enable
- B. anyconnect firewall-rule client-interface
- C. anyconnect keep-installer none
- D. client-bypass-protocol disable
Answer: C
Explanation:
The anyconnect keep-installer none command is used to remove the Cisco Secure Client (formerly AnyConnect) from an endpoint once the VPN session ends. This is useful in temporary or kiosk-based access environments. The default behavior retains the client.
This capability is covered in SCAZT Section 2: User and Device Security (Pages 40-44), which outlines VPN session lifecycle management and Secure Client policies.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 2, Pages 40-44
NEW QUESTION # 45
When validating traffic flow and telemetry reports, it is important to:
- A. Only focus on external traffic while ignoring internal traffic patterns
- B. Rely exclusively on manual inspection without the aid of automated tools
- C. Assume all traffic is benign and requires no further investigation
- D. Utilize tools like Cisco Secure Network Analytics for comprehensive analysis and baselining
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 46 
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is investigating an issue by using Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics. The engineer confirms that the connections are unauthorized and informs the incident management team. Which two actions must be taken next? (Choose two.)
- A. Create a firewall rule that has a source of linux-gcp-east-4c, a destination of Any, and a protocol of SSH.
- B. Quarantine the host
- C. Reinstall the host from a recent backup.
- D. Reinstall the host from scratch.
- E. Create a firewall rule that has a source of Any, a destination of linux-gcp-east-4c, and a protocol of SSH.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Based on the alert of "Geographically Unusual Remote Access" from Secure Cloud Analytics and the SSH logs from foreign IPs, this device (linux-gcp-east-4c) has likely been compromised. According to SCAZT Section 6: Threat Response (Pages 114-117):
B: Isolating/quarantining the host is an immediate incident response step to prevent lateral movement and data exfiltration.
E: A firewall rule blocking inbound SSH to the GCP VM from external sources would be the appropriate access control response to prevent recurrence.
Options A and C (reinstallation) may be used later during recovery but are not immediate containment steps.
Blocking outgoing SSH (Option D) is less relevant than restricting inbound SSH in this scenario.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Threat Response, Pages 114-117
NEW QUESTION # 47
The benefits of utilizing visibility and logging tools such as SIEM include:
- A. Centralized logging and analysis of security data
- B. Decreased need for encryption
- C. Increased manual workload for security teams
- D. Improved incident detection and response times
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 48 
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a remote access IPsec/IKEv1 VPN that will use AES256 and SHA256 on a Cisco ASA firewall. The indicated configuration was applied to the firewall; however, the tunnel fails to establish. Which two IKEv1 policy commands must be run to meet the requirement? (Choose two.)
- A. integrity aes-256
- B. ipsec-proposal AES256-SHA256
- C. hash sha-256
- D. ipsec-proposal sha-256-aes-256
- E. encryption aes-256
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
In IKEv1 policy configuration for Cisco ASA, two key commands are required to define the encryption and hashing algorithms:
A: encryption aes-256 defines the encryption method for the IKE SA.
E: hash sha-256 ensures SHA-256 is used as the integrity mechanism during IKE phase 1.
According to Cisco documentation and SCAZT (Section 1: Cloud Security Architecture, Pages 19-22), these two components are essential to negotiating a secure VPN tunnel. The provided config uses group 1 (modp768), which is weak by today's standards and could also lead to negotiation failure. However, from the available options, encryption and hash are the two required for tunnel success.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 1, Pages 19-22
NEW QUESTION # 49
Response automation in cybersecurity is primarily used for:
- A. Decreasing the speed of response to security incidents
- B. Automating the process of detecting and responding to threats
- C. Increasing the workload of cybersecurity teams
- D. Reducing the accuracy of threat detection
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 50
What is associated with implementing Cisco zero-trust architecture?
- A. It provides the same security as the VPN technology.
- B. It assumes that all network traffic is trustworthy.
- C. It focuses on perimeter-based security.
- D. It verifies trust before granting access to resources.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Zero Trust is based on the concept of "never trust, always verify." It ensures that no user or device is inherently trusted, even if they are inside the corporate network. Cisco's Zero Trust Architecture implements continuous trust verification for every access request, using identity, device posture, and behavior analysis.
SCAZT Section 1 (Cloud Security Architecture, Pages 13-17) describes how Cisco's Zero Trust model authenticates and authorizes access before permitting resource interaction.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 1, Pages 13-17
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NEW QUESTION # 51 
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a firewall policy to allow web server communication only. The indicated firewall policy was applied; however, a recent audit requires that all firewall policies be optimized.
Which set of rules must be deleted?
- A. Rules 2 to 5
- B. Rules 2 to 4
- C. Rules 1 and 5
- D. Rules 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Based on the Cisco Tetration segmentation policy and the requirement to allow only web server communication (HTTP/HTTPS):
Rule 1 allows HTTP (port 80) - required
Rule 2 allows HTTPS (port 443) - required
Rule 3 allows SSH - not needed for web communication
Rule 4 allows UDP port 68 (DHCP) - not relevant to application-layer web server traffic Therefore, Rules 3 and 4 are unnecessary and should be deleted for policy optimization, which aligns with zero-trust and least-privilege access design as outlined in SCAZT Section 4 (Application and Data Security, Pages 86-90).
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 4, Pages 86-90
NEW QUESTION # 52
For enforcing application policy at the network security edge, which of the following are critical?
- A. Implementing dynamic security policies based on application behavior and user context
- B. Enforcing uniform policies without considering individual application requirements
- C. Integrating endpoint security for comprehensive network protection
- D. Ignoring encrypted traffic as it is considered secure
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION # 53
SAML and OIDC are both standards used for:
- A. Encrypting data on a device
- B. Web filtering
- C. Physical security of devices
- D. User and device authentication in single sign-on scenarios
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 54
A common identity across systems is essential for:
- A. Simplifying user access and security management
- B. Increasing operational costs
- C. Isolating network segments
- D. Reducing network speed
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 55
According to Cisco Security Reference Architecture, which solution provides threat intelligence and malware analytics?
- A. Cisco Talos
- B. Cisco XDR
- C. Cisco Umbrella
- D. Cisco pxGrid
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Talos is Cisco's threat intelligence organization, delivering real-time threat intelligence and malware analytics to help organizations detect and prevent threats before they impact the network. According to the SCAZT guide, Talos provides comprehensive coverage of threat data including signatures, indicators of compromise, and context-driven analytics. This intelligence feeds into Cisco security platforms such as Cisco SecureX and Cisco Secure Endpoint to enhance detection, investigation, and response capabilities. Talos is explicitly referenced in the Threat Response section as the primary source of threat intelligence and malware analytics that supports cloud and endpoint security frameworks.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT) Study Guide, Section 6: Threat Response, Pages 112-115.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Response automation tools help in:
- A. Quickly isolating infected devices from the network
- B. Complicating incident response procedures
- C. Slowing down the detection of malware
- D. Increasing the number of false positives
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 57
What does the Cisco Telemetry Broker provide for telemetry data?
- A. Data mining
- B. Data analytics
- C. Data brokering
- D. Data filtering
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Telemetry Broker (CTB) is designed to act as an intermediary that filters, enriches, and routes telemetry data-such as NetFlow, Syslog, and SNMP-across various tools. It optimizes resource usage by preventing overload and ensures only relevant telemetry is forwarded to appropriate analytics platforms.
The SCAZT guide (Section 5: Visibility and Assurance, Pages 93-95) describes CTB's role in applying filters and transformations to raw telemetry data to enhance visibility and reduce noise.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 5, Pages 93-95
NEW QUESTION # 58
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